The Second Crucifixion; Are Christians Being Careless?

The Second Crucifixion; Are Christians Being Careless?

The Christian Problem:

I cannot overemphasise the observation that, most often, Christians’ understanding or interpretation of scriptures lead them to either inaction, or half-hearted action; they see God as this all powerful father who has promised them every good thing, and so all they have to do is to please him through prescribed religious acts such as prayer, giving, etc. and He would release all the good things to them. And if things are not working, they believe that it is either the devil causing such, so they deal solely with the devil through loud and commandeering prayers; or that God is saying either ‘No’ or ‘Wait.’ But are there any relevant / contextual, authentic and unambiguous scriptures to back such beliefs and the attendant actions and/or inactions? We need to be certain about that! And this calls for authentic translation and/or exposition of the Holy Scriptures; devoid of avoidable and / or extreme human errors. Why am I saying this?



Take Proverbs 10:22 for instance, it says: “The blessing of the Lord makes one rich, And He adds no sorrow with it;” (NKJV) or “The blessing of the LORD, it maketh rich, and he addeth no sorrow with it.” (KJV) I noticed something very curious about the translation/rendition in the Akan and Ga Bibles; see the following clippings from those Bibles…



When translated into English, each of the above texts (verse 22) in the clippings mean: ‘It is only the blessing of the Lord that can make one rich. Hardwork does not add anything!‘ But is that what the NKJV and KJV are saying? Oops! Something is definitely wrong here; either that the NKJV or KJV is wrong, or that the Akan and Ga translations are wrong; all of them cannot be correct at the same time, since they clearly are saying and/or mean different things! Or could it be that they were translated from a different version of the English Bible? Well, it appears to have been translated from the NIV, except that the NIV rendition could have at least two meanings, one of which seems to have been taken for the Twi and Ga renditions; I would have gone for the other possible meaning which is more consistent with the KJV / NJKV and other passages like Proverbs 6:10/24:33 across all the versions. And these translations were made by eminent persons; if not ‘men and women of God.’ Could this be just a tip of the iceberg? I believe so; indeed, I know so!

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The Second Crucifixion; Are Christians Being Careless?

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